Name: 
 

Advanced Biology Practice Exam 1st sem



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Ecology is the study of the interaction of living organisms
a.
with each other and their habitat.
b.
and their communities.
c.
with each other and their physical environment.
d.
and the food they eat.
 

 2. 

The destruction of the ozone layer may be responsible for an increase in
a.
cataracts.
c.
cancer of the retina.
b.
melanoma.
d.
All of the above
 

 3. 

CFCs in the atmosphere
a.
stick to frozen water vapor.
c.
convert sunlight into ozone.
b.
change oxygen into ozone.
d.
convert ozone into methane.
 

 4. 

Which of the following would not be an advantage of the endoskeleton found in all vertebrates?
a.
It protects internal body structures.
b.
It aids in movement.
c.
It helps prevent desiccation in terrestrial vertebrates.
d.
It provides structural support in terrestrial vertebrates.
 

 5. 

Which of the following is not found in all vertebrates?
a.
jaws
c.
endoskeleton
b.
cranium
d.
vertebral column
 

 6. 

The first stage in the evolution of the animal body occurred
a.
over millions of years in the sea.
b.
relatively recently, once organisms emerged from the sea.
c.
among free-floating algae in ancient seas.
d.
on dry land, several hundred million years ago.
 

 7. 

Jaws probably evolved from the
a.
pectoral fins of jawless fishes.
c.
paired pelvic fins of jawless fishes.
b.
gills slits of sharks and rays.
d.
gill arches of jawless fishes.
 

 8. 

Lampreys and hagfishes have
a.
jaws.
b.
paired fins.
c.
a rigid skeleton.
d.
a notochord through all stages of their life cycle.
 

 9. 

The word agnatha means
a.
“bony fishes.”
c.
“without vertebral column.”
b.
“without jaws.”
d.
”early fish.”
 

 10. 

The first vertebrates
a.
were jawless fishes.
b.
had thick, bony plates that covered their bodies.
c.
had no well-developed vertebral column.
d.
All of the above
 

 11. 

The living agnathans are the
a.
lampreys and sharks.
c.
hagfishes and coelacanths.
b.
sharks and rays.
d.
lampreys and hagfishes.
 

 12. 

Lampreys are
a.
autotrophs.
c.
parasites.
b.
mutualistic organisms.
d.
amphibians.
 

 13. 

The ion concentration in the body of a shark
a.
changes constantly as the shark swims at different depths.
b.
is higher than that in the surrounding sea water.
c.
is lower than that in the surrounding sea water.
d.
is the same as that in the surrounding sea water.
 

 14. 

The word chondrichthyes means
a.
bony fish.
c.
big fish.
b.
gilled fish.
d.
cartilage fish.
 

 15. 

Cartilaginous fishes have all of the following except
a.
spiracles.
c.
a swim bladder.
b.
internal fertilization.
d.
gill slits.
 

 16. 

Trees growing along the banks of a river but not growing in the surrounding area would best be described as a ____ dispersion of the trees.
a.
clumped
b.
even
c.
random
d.
mixture of clumped, even, and random
 

 17. 

As a population reaches its carrying capacity, there is an increase in competition for
a.
food.
c.
mates.
b.
shelter.
d.
All of the above
 

 18. 

Which of the following is a density-independent regulatory factor?
a.
food
c.
temperature
b.
water
d.
number of nesting sites
 

 19. 

All of the following are problems arising from inbreeding, except
a.
production of a genetically uniform population.
b.
increases in the diversity within a population.
c.
increased chance of homozygous recessive alleles occurring.
d.
reduction of a population’s ability to adapt to environmental changes.
 

 20. 

Which population might be least likely to be devastated by a disease outbreak?
a.
a small population who are all offspring of healthy, related parents
b.
a large, genetically-diverse population
c.
a small, genetically-uniform population
d.
a few strong, healthy individuals
 

 21. 

The agricultural revolution enabled Earth’s human population to increase dramatically because it
a.
allowed people to live in one place instead of moving from place to place in search of food.
b.
stabilized and increased available food supplies.
c.
resulted in people being healthier and therefore better able to resist diseases.
d.
provided plenty of work for most of Earth’s population.
 

 22. 

Human population growth is most rapid in
a.
Europe.
c.
Japan.
b.
the United States.
d.
developing countries.
 

 23. 

A relationship between a producer and consumer is best illustrated by
a.
a snake eating a bird.
c.
a lion eating a zebra.
b.
a fox eating a mouse.
d.
a zebra eating grass.
 

 24. 

Parasites
a.
coevolve with their hosts.
c.
rarely kill their hosts.
b.
are usually smaller than their hosts.
d.
All of the above
 

 25. 

A tick feeding on a human is an example of
a.
parasitism.
c.
competition.
b.
mutualism.
d.
predation.
 

 26. 

Which of the following is an example of mimicry?
a.
a poisonous species that resembles a harmless species
b.
coloration that causes an animal to blend in with its habitat
c.
a harmless species that resembles a poisonous species
d.
similarly colored body parts on two poisonous species
 

 27. 

Characteristics that enable plants to protect themselves from herbivores include
a.
thorns and prickles.
c.
chemical defenses.
b.
sticky hairs and tough leaves.
d.
All of the above
 

 28. 

Which of the following usually results when members of the same species require the same food and space?
a.
primary succession
c.
secondary succession
b.
competition
d.
interspecific competition
 

 29. 

Competitive exclusion occurs when
a.
a species is eliminated from a community because of competition.
b.
new species enter an ecosystem.
c.
species reproduce.
d.
a species occupies a fundamental niche.
 

 30. 

The relationship between plants and the bees that pollinate them is an example of
a.
commensalism.
c.
mutualism.
b.
competition.
d.
parasitism.
 

 31. 

The relationship between a whale and barnacles growing on its skin is an example of
a.
commensalism.
c.
mutualism.
b.
competition.
d.
parasitism.
 

 32. 

Species diversity is a measure of
a.
the number of species in a community.
b.
the total number of individuals in a community.
c.
the number of plant species relative to the number of animal species in a community.
d.
the number of species and the relative abundance of each in a community.
 

 33. 

The closer an ecosystem is to the equator,
a.
the longer its growing season.
c.
the warmer its temperature.
b.
the greater its diversity.
d.
All of the above
 

 34. 

Extinction of many species of organisms is expected to occur in tropical areas because of
a.
global warming.
b.
destruction of habitats.
c.
people hunting many species of animals.
d.
predation by introduced animals.
 

 35. 

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable community?
a.
good resistance to insect pests
b.
the ability to recover rapidly from a drought
c.
a high species richness
d.
a low number of predators
 

 36. 

Organisms that manufacture organic nutrients for an ecosystem are called
a.
primary consumers.
c.
primary producers.
b.
predators.
d.
scavengers.
 

 37. 

The primary producers in a grassland ecosystem would most likely be
a.
insects.
c.
grasses.
b.
bacteria.
d.
algae.
 

 38. 

The organic material in an ecosystem is called
a.
trophic level.
c.
energy level.
b.
biomass.
d.
ecomass.
 

 39. 

When an organism dies, the nitrogen in its body
a.
can never be reused by other living things.
b.
is immediately released into the atmosphere.
c.
is released by the action of decomposers.
d.
None of the above
 

 40. 

In a food web, which type of organism receives energy from every other type?
a.
producer
c.
decomposer
b.
carnivore
d.
herbivore
 

 41. 

A forest ecosystem is considered self-supporting because
a.
the sun directly provides its needed chemical energy.
b.
the ecosystem energy is transferred only among its animals.
c.
no additional energy sources or materials need to be added to the system from the outside.
d.
it consists only of organic matter.
 

 42. 

Animals that feed on plants are at least in the
a.
first trophic level.
c.
third trophic level.
b.
second trophic level.
d.
fourth trophic level.
 

 43. 

The number of trophic levels in an ecological pyramid
a.
is limitless.
b.
is limited by the amount of energy that is lost at each trophic level.
c.
never exceeds four.
d.
never exceeds three.
 

 44. 

In going from one trophic level to the next higher level,
a.
the number of organisms increases.
b.
the amount of usable energy increases.
c.
the amount of usable energy decreases.
d.
diversity of organisms increases.
 

 45. 

Because energy diminishes at each successive trophic level, few ecosystems can contain more than
a.
two trophic levels.
c.
five trophic levels.
b.
four trophic levels.
d.
eight trophic levels.
 

 46. 

Precipitation and evaporation are important components of the
a.
nitrogen cycle.
c.
carbon cycle.
b.
water cycle.
d.
All of the above
 

 47. 

Which of the following is part of the nitrogen cycle?
a.
conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into usable organic compounds by bacteria
b.
conversion of nitrogen from decaying organisms into ammonia
c.
nitrogen fixation
d.
All of the above
 

 48. 

Nitrogen is a component of
a.
proteins.
c.
carbohydrates.
b.
fats.
d.
water.
 

 49. 

In the nitrogen cycle, plants use nitrates and nitrites to form
a.
ammonia.
c.
nutrients.
b.
nitrogen gas.
d.
amino acids.
 

 50. 

Which of the following is common to the carbon cycle, the nitrogen cycle, and the water cycle?
a.
The substance is rearranged into different types of molecules as it moves through its cycle.
b.
The substance must pass through organisms in order to complete its cycle.
c.
The largest reserves of the substance are always in organisms.
d.
The substance is required by all living things and is involved in many processes that occur in all living things.
 

 51. 

Coal, oil, and natural gas
a.
are formed from decayed plants.
b.
are fossil fuels.
c.
release carbon dioxide when they are burned.
d.
All of the above
 

 52. 

Humans are affecting the carbon cycle by
a.
burning fossil fuels.
b.
destroying vegetation that absorbs carbon dioxide.
c.
using electrical labor-saving devices.
d.
All of the above
 

 53. 

Which of the following biomes is characterized by evergreen trees and mammals such as moose, bears, and lynx?
a.
taiga
c.
temperate rain forest
b.
polar
d.
tundra
 

 54. 

Herds of grazing animals are most likely to be found in a
a.
savanna.
c.
deciduous forest.
b.
tropical rain forest.
d.
taiga
 

 55. 

The biome that makes up most of the central part of the United States is
a.
rain forest.
c.
tundra.
b.
temperate grassland.
d.
deciduous forest.
 

 56. 

Which of the following is not an adaptation for water conservation found in desert organisms?
a.
nocturnal lifestyle
c.
waxy leaf coatings
b.
deep root system
d.
burrowing in the ground
 

 57. 

Which of the following animals would most likely be found in a temperate rain forest?
a.
monkeys
c.
deer
b.
caribou
d.
leopards
 

 58. 

Tropical ecosystems are more diverse than temperate zone ecosystems because
a.
the growing season in tropical ecosystems never stops.
b.
the climate in tropical ecosystems does not vary much from year to year.
c.
a greater amount of food is produced in tropical ecosystems.
d.
All of the above
 

 59. 

Almost all of Earth’s surface water is contained in
a.
ocean ecosystems.
c.
tropical rain forests.
b.
freshwater biomes.
d.
ponds and lakes.
 

 60. 

Which of the following is characteristic of the photic zone of the ocean but not the aphotic zone?
a.
fish
c.
bacteria
b.
tides
d.
photosynthesis
 

 61. 

Plankton are
a.
a major formation ingredient of most fossil fuels.
b.
found in the deep-water zone of most lakes and oceans.
c.
the base of most aquatic food webs.
d.
usually in the third and fourth trophic levels of ocean ecosystems.
 

 62. 

Organisms with light-producing body parts would most likely be found in
a.
the deep-water zone of lakes.
c.
open ocean surfaces.
b.
shallow ocean waters.
d.
deep ocean waters.
 

 63. 

The greatest diversity of life in the ocean is found in
a.
shallow ocean waters.
c.
deep ocean waters.
b.
the ocean surface.
d.
tidal areas.
 

 64. 

Which of the following processes harnesses energy for organisms living near deep-sea vents?
a.
photosynthesis
c.
chemosynthesis
b.
heterotrophy
d.
respiration
 

 65. 

Eutrophic and oligotrophic lakes differ primarily in the amount of ____ they contain.
a.
animal life
c.
salt
b.
algae
d.
organic matter
 

 66. 

El Niño results in a cutoff in the upwelling of ____ in the ocean.
a.
oxygen-rich water
c.
anchovies
b.
nutrients
d.
warm water
 

 67. 

Which of the following is not a result of El Niño?
a.
reduced catches of anchovies
c.
reduced grain production
b.
reduced guano production
d.
reduced summer air temperatures
 

 68. 

Which of the following is not a human-induced alteration in Earth’s environment?
a.
global warming
c.
reduction of the ozone layer
b.
El Niño
d.
increased carbon dioxide levels
 

 69. 

The extinction of species
a.
is a problem limited to the tropics.
b.
has been speeded up by the activities of people.
c.
is a problem only where topsoil and ground water are limited.
d.
is not a problem in the twentieth century.
 
 
nar001-1.jpg
 

 70. 

Refer to the illustration above. The current rate of population growth will result in a doubling of the world population every 39 years. Based on information in the graph, what will be the approximate world population in the year 2039 if nothing is done to change this rate?
a.
6 billion
c.
12 billion
b.
10 billion
d.
24 billion
 

 71. 

Which of the following groups of organisms has the greatest species richness?
a.
mammals
c.
plants
b.
insects
d.
vertebrates
 

 72. 

Destruction of the tropical rain forests
a.
threatens the existence of thousands of species.
b.
provides for more pasture and farmlands.
c.
is done partly because of the need for lumber.
d.
All of the above
 

 73. 

During which of the following periods in the history of life on Earth is/was there the greatest biodiversity?
a.
Cretaceous
c.
Cambrian
b.
Jurassic
d.
present
 

 74. 

Which of the following is a utilitarian use of biodiversity?
a.
food
c.
recreation
b.
timber
d.
All of the above
 

 75. 

Which of the following is not a utilitarian value of biodiversity?
a.
development of medicinal drugs from wild plant species
b.
harvesting and sale of ornamental plant species present in the wild
c.
preservation of organisms because they are alive
d.
use of wild plants and animals for food
 

 76. 

The steps needed to solve environmental problems include
a.
waiting for the affected species to leave an ecosystem that is in trouble.
b.
leaving them to United Nations committees to address.
c.
educating the public about them and the costs of their solution.
d.
taking any necessary action, regardless of the consequences or adverse effects.
 

 77. 

The biggest threat to the survival of migratory birds is
a.
insufficient numbers of nesting sites in their summer habitats.
b.
habitat destruction along their flyways and in their winter habitats.
c.
hunting during migration.
d.
increasingly cooler winter habitats.
 

 78. 

Gray-wolf populations in the United States became endangered because of
a.
the killing of wolves by people.
b.
declines in populations of the prey these carnivores eat.
c.
loss of habitat as ranches increased in size.
d.
unusually severe winters for a number of years.
 

 79. 

The primary justification for the wolf reintroduction plan was
a.
to help control elk populations.
b.
to return a well-known species to a national park.
c.
to increase enjoyment of a national park for visitors.
d.
All of the above
 

 80. 

Which of the following is not a component of the wolf reintroduction plan?
a.
provisions for compensation to ranchers who lose livestock to the wolves
b.
financial incentives offered for landowners who let wolves breed on their property
c.
laws preventing anyone from killing a wolf
d.
monitoring of reintroduced wolf populations
 

 81. 

The efforts to restore Everglades National Park focus on
a.
planting native trees and grasses that had previously been removed.
b.
building a dam to prevent further water loss from the area.
c.
restoring water pathways to their previous, natural courses.
d.
purchasing the rest of the Everglades ecosystem not already in the Everglades National Park.
 

 82. 

All the members of the kingdom Animalia
a.
are heterotrophs.
c.
have cells without cell walls.
b.
are multicellular.
d.
All of the above
 

 83. 

Specialized cells
a.
can carry out their tasks more effectively than cells that must do many tasks.
b.
are found only in chordates and echinoderms.
c.
always operate independently of all other cells.
d.
All of the above
 

 84. 

A group of similar cells organized into a functional unit is called
a.
a nervous system.
c.
a tissue.
b.
specialized cells.
d.
an organ.
 

 85. 

Which of the following is found only in animals?
a.
the ability to move
c.
muscle tissue and nervous tissue
b.
sexual reproduction
d.
heterotrophy
 

 86. 

Animals probably evolved from
a.
plants.
c.
heterotrophic protists.
b.
photosynthetic protists.
d.
None of the above
 

 87. 

Modern organisms that are thought to resemble the earliest animals are
a.
plants.
c.
unicellular protozoans.
b.
colonial protists.
d.
bacteria.
 

 88. 

Most animals have a head that is located at the ____ end of their body and a tail that is located at the ____ end of their body.
a.
ventral; dorsal
c.
anterior; posterior
b.
dorsal; ventral
d.
posterior; anterior
 
 
      nar002-1.jpg
 

 89. 

Refer to the illustration above. The position of the arrow labeled ____ can be referred to as anterior.
a.
“1”
c.
“5”
b.
“4”
d.
“6”
 
 
      nar003-1.jpg
 

 90. 

Refer to the illustration above. The organism labeled “B” in the diagram
a.
is asymmetrical.
c.
exhibits radial symmetry.
b.
is bilaterally symmetrical.
d.
has reverse symmetry.
 

 91. 

Refer to the illustration above. The organism labeled “A” in the diagram
a.
has no symmetry.
c.
exhibits radial symmetry.
b.
is bilaterally symmetrical.
d.
has reverse symmetry.
 

 92. 

Radially symmetrical phyla include all of the following except
a.
jellyfish.
c.
hydra.
b.
comb jellies.
d.
sponges.
 

 93. 

Which of the following has a radial symmetry?
a.
flatworm
c.
chordate
b.
annelid
d.
cnidarian
 

 94. 

Cephalization
a.
is a feature of most invertebrates, including the sponges.
b.
is characterized by the concentration of sensory organs in the anterior end.
c.
occurs in marine protozoa.
d.
results when the brain does not develop properly.
 

 95. 

Which of the following is found in vertebrates but not in invertebrates?
a.
dorsal nerve cord
c.
three germ layers
b.
coelom
d.
bilateral symmetry
 

 96. 

At some stage of their development, all chordates have a supportive rod along their back called the
a.
spinal cord.
c.
notochord.
b.
pharynx.
d.
None of the above
 

 97. 

A characteristic shared by all chordates at some stage of their development is
a.
a dorsal hollow nerve cord.
c.
pharyngeal pouches.
b.
a notochord.
d.
All of the above
 

 98. 

Which of the following is not a vertebrate adaptation to life on land?
a.
lungs
c.
endoskeleton
b.
internal fertilization
d.
brain
 

 99. 

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the largest phylum of invertebrates, the arthropods?
a.
segmentation
c.
closed circulatory system
b.
exoskeleton
d.
digestive tract
 

 100. 

In sponges, digestion occurs in
a.
a gut.
b.
individual cells.
c.
a central cavity with a single opening.
d.
outside of the animal’s body.
 



 
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