bio4050/4161:  human anatomy & physiology 1
exam 2 question sampler

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1.	Calcium ions bind to the __________ molecule in skeletal muscle cells.
	a.	actin
	b.	tropomyosin
	c.	troponin
	d.	myosin
2.	Myoglobin
	a.	breaks down glycogen.
	b.	is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP.
	c.	holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells.
	d.	produces the end plate potential.
3.	A sarcomere is the
	a.	nonfunctional unit of smooth muscle.
	b.	area between two Z lines (or Z discs).
	c.	area between two intercalated discs.
	d.	cross-striation seen under the light microscope.
4.	Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by
	a.	forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin.
	b.	forming a chemical compound with actin.
	c.	inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments.
	d.	storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed.
5.	The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum during muscle contraction is to
	a.	make and store phosphocreatine.
	b.	synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments.
	c.	provide a source of myosin for the contraction process.
	d.	regulate intracellular calcium concentration.
6.	Which of the following contain myosin?
	a.	thick filaments
	b.	thin filaments
	c.	all myofilaments
	d.	Z discs
7.	Athletes sometimes complain of oxygen debt, a condition that results when insufficient oxygen is available to break down pyruvic acid completely. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to
	a.	a strong base.
	b.	stearic acid.
	c.	hydrochloric acid.
	d.	lactic acid.
8.	The sliding filament model of contraction involves
	a.	actin and myosin sliding past each other but not shortening,
	b.	the shortening of the thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past.
	c.	actin and myosin shortening but not sliding past each other.
	d.	the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments.
9.	Scissors demonstrate which type of lever?
	a.	Class I
	b.	Class II
	c.	Class III
	d.	Class IV
10.	What is the major factor controlling the manner in which levers work?
	a.	the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever
	b.	the weight of the load
	c.	the direction the load is being moved
	d.	the difference in the positioning of the effort (force), load (weight), and fulcrum
11.	What primarily determines the power of a muscle?
	a.	its length
	b.	its shape
	c.	the number of neurons innervating it
	d.	the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
12.	A muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement is called a(n)
	a.	synergist
	b.	agonist
	c.	antagonist
	d.	fixator
13.	Extensors of the wrist and hand
	a.	are located within the posterior compartment of the forearm
	b.	attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
	c.	pass through the carpal tunnel
	d.	a and b
14.	An individual has just ingested a chemical that irreversibly binds to the ACh receptors in the sarcolemma. By itself, it does not alter membrane potential, yet it prevents normal neurotransmitter binding. Ignoring the effects on any other systems, the consequence to skeletal muscle would be:
	a.	irreversible contraction as soon as the first nervous stimulation reached the sarcolemma.
	b.	no contraction at all by nervous stimulus.
	c.	contraction if stimulated by an external electrode.
	d.	both b and c.
15.	If the concentration of sodium ions is 142 mEq outside the cell and 10 mEq inside, the diffusional gradient (chemical gradient) would favor the movement of sodium
	a.	from outside to inside
	b.	from inside to outside
	c.	in neither direction
16.	The sheath of Schwann is also called the
	a.	demyelinating sheath.
	b.	axolemma.
	c.	neurilemma.
	d.	white matter.
17.	The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the
	a.	resting period.
	b.	repolarization.
	c.	depolarization.
	d.	refractory period.
18.	The point at which an impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell is the
	a.	cell body.
	b.	synapse
	c.	receptor.
	d.	effector.
19.	Saltatory conduction is made possible by
	a.	the myelin sheath.
	b.	large nerve fibers.
	c.	diphasic impulses.
	d.	erratic transmission of nerve impulses.
20.	Which of these ions is actively transported through the cell membrane to establish a resting potential?
	a.	Na
	b.	Cl
	c.	Mg
	d.	Ca
21.	All the following are true about graded potentials except that they
	a.	are short-lived.
	b.	can form on receptor endings.
	c.	increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.
	d.	can be called postsynaptic potentials.
22.	Which of these cells forms myelin sheaths within the central nervous system?
	a.	perikarya
	b.	the epineurium
	c.	oligodendrocytes
	d.	ependymal cells
23.	The cells responsible for making myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system are the
	a.	Schwann cells
	b.	Langerhans cells
	c.	Purkinje cells
	d.	perineurium
24.	If a motor neuron in body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon
	a.	the impulse would move to the axon terminal only.
	b.	muscle contraction would occur.
	c.	the impulse would spread bidirectionally.
	d.	both a and b
25.	Consider particle W, which carries a charge of +3 and has a molecular weight of 4.1 kDa. [ Recall that the molecular weight of a substance is expressed in units called Daltons. As for size, something in the kDa range is moderately big; a glucose molecule only weighs in at 180 Da. ] If the diffusional gradient is from outside the cell to inside the cell and the membrane is “permeable” to particle W, what mechanism would get W into the cell?
	a.	simple diffusion
	b.	facilitated diffusion
	c.	active transport
	d.	osmosis
26.	Suppose that particle X has a molecular weight of 42 Da and the diffusional gradient is from inside the cell to outside the cell with the membrane being permeable to X. How now would X get into the cell?
	a.	simple diffusion
	b.	facilitated diffusion
	c.	active transport
	d.	osmosis
27.	Suppose that particle Y has a molecular weight of 18 Da and this time, the gradient is from out to in, but the membrane is impermeable to Y. What process would happen?
	a.	simple diffusion
	b.	facilitated diffusion
	c.	active transport
	d.	osmosis
28.	If Z were dehydroepiandrosterone [DHEA], a steroid hormone with a molecular weight of 288.4 Da, and there exists a diffusional gradient, what would happen? [ Recall that steroids are lipids and that one of the rules of solubility is that “like is soluble in like”; thus, polar molecules are soluble in polar solutions but not in nonpolar ones. ]
	a.	simple diffusion
	b.	facilitated diffusion
	c.	active transport
	d.	osmosis
29.	Nuclei of cranial nerves V,VI, and VII are found in the
	a.	midbrain.
	b.	medulla.
	c.	pons.
	d.	cerebrum.
30.	The nuclei for cranial nerves IX-XII are found in the
	a.	diencephalon.
	b.	mesencephalon.
	c.	pons.
	d.	medulla oblongata.
31.	The arbor vitae are
	a.	cerebellar gray matter.
	b.	cerebellar white matter.
	c.	the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum.
	d.	the flocculonodular nodes.
32.	The class III lever system is the commonest in the body. Which of these is a class III lever system?
	a.	triceps brachii -- elbow j -- forearm
	b.	metarsophalangeal j - leg -- gastrocnemius m
	c.	forearm -- elbow j -- biceps brachii m
33.	The third ventricle found in the
	a.	brainstem
	b.	mesencephalon
	c.	diencephalon
	d.	cerebral hemispheres
34.	The early brain developed as a means to deal with all that newfound sensory input coming from the anterior part of the body. The development of the brain and the accumulation of sensory structures anteriorly is called
	a.	cephalization
	b.	encapsulation
	c.	ganglionization
35.	The forebrain probably developed to accommodate which special sense?
	a.	olfaction
	b.	vision
	c.	equilibrium
36.	And the hindbrain?
	a.	olfaction
	b.	vision
	c.	equilibrium
37.	The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the
	a.	pons.
	b.	medulla.
	c.	midbrain.
	d.	cerebrum.
38.	The fourth ventricle lies adjacent to the
	a.	thalamus.
	b.	corpus callosum.
	c.	pons.
	d.	pituitary.
39.	Which of the following is not a midbrain structure?
	a.	third ventricle
	b.	cerebral peduncles
	c.	corpora quadrigemina
	d.	red nucleus
40.	The connecting channel between the third and fourth ventricles is the
	a.	foramen of Magendie
	b.	sinus of Valsalva
	c.	cerebral aqueduct
	d.	hypophyseal infundibulum
41.	Before visual and auditory signals are relayed to the cerebral cortex, they pass through the
	a.	mesencephalon
	b.	reticular formation
	c.	spinal cord nuclei
	d.	cerebellum
42.	The corticopontine tract has as its terminus the
	a.	cerebral cortex
	b.	cerebellum
	c.	thalamus
	d.	pons
43.	Which of the following is not a hindbrain structure?
	a.	fourth ventricle
	b.	pons
	c.	medulla oblongata
	d.	basal nuclei
44.	The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is(are) the
	a.	thalamus.
	b.	reticular formation.
	c.	pyramids.
	d.	limbic system.
45.	The functions of the vestibulocochlear nerves concern
	a.	vision and hearing.
	b.	smell and taste.
	c.	hearing and balance.
	d.	fine and gross muscle control.
46.	Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted into the ventricular system of the CNS using the
	a.	arachnoid granulations
	b.	choroid plexuses
	c.	foramen of Luschka
47.	Which of these is not a graded potential?
	a.	an IPSP
	b.	an action potential
	c.	a ramp potential
48.	The electrogenic sodium-potassium pump moves how many sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions that it moves into the cell?
	a.	one
	b.	two
	c.	three
49.	The voltage-gated potassium channel has how many gates?
	a.	one
	b.	two
	c.	three
50.	An action potential generated in a membrane will, if possible,
	a.	propagate in both directions
	b.	diminish in intensity gradually
	c.	stay localized to the point of stimulation
51.	Which ions are moving into and out of the cell during depolarization? [ NB:  In a question like this, assume that you are being asked about movement greater than the normal leakage that would occur. After all, in its resting state, a membrane is not totally refractory to ion movements in and out. Also, discount any effects of the sodium-potassium pump. ]
	a.	sodium
	b.	potassium
	c.	both of these
	d.	none
52.	Which of these values would represent reverse polarization, given a resting membrane potential of -85 mV?
	a.	- 55 mV
	b.	+35 mV
	c.	- 90 mV
53.	An action potential generated in a membrane will, if possible,
	a.	propagate in both directions
	b.	diminish in intensity gradually
	c.	stay localized to the point of stimulation
54.	Our reduced view of the Nernst equation states that EMF = ± 60 log10 C1/C2 If C1=200 mEq, and the ion is positive, and C2=20 mEq, what is the potential difference across the membrane? [log10100=2, log101000=3...]
	a.	+ 60 mV
	b.	- 60 mV
	c.	+ 600 mV
	d.	- 600 mV
55.	Which of these is not an integral part of the actin filament?
	a.	tropomyosin
	b.	calcium
	c.	troponin
	d.	F-actin
56.	The thin filaments are attached to the
	a.	H zone
	b.	thick filaments via their troponin molecules
	c.	Z-line
57.	What is the commonest neurotransmitter used to excite the muscle fiber?
	a.	dopamine
	b.	GABA
	c.	acetylcholine
	d.	norepinephrine
58.	Where does the nerve innervating the skeletal muscle fiber have its terminus?
	a.	closest to the origin of the muscle
	b.	in the middle of the fiber
	c.	closest to the insertion of the muscle
	d.	wherever seemed best at the time
59.	ATPase activity is found where?
	a.	troponin
	b.	myosin head
	c.	G-actin binding site
	d.	tropomyosin
60.	The actin filament is composed of how many F-actin strands?
	a.	none
	b.	one
	c.	two
61.	Which of these factors is not required for contraction of skeletal muscle?
	a.	calcium ions
	b.	magnesium ions
	c.	ATP
	d.	vitamin D
62.	How does the calcium get returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum after a contraction?
	a.	simple diffusion
	b.	facilitated diffusion
	c.	active transport
	d.	it doesn’t need to be returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum, so there is no mechanism to do so
63.	The connective tissue investment about each fascicle of a gross muscle is the
	a.	endomysium
	b.	perimysium
	c.	epimysium
64.	A large motor unit
	a.	has multiple axons
	b.	exhibits very delicate muscle control
	c.	is found in the quadriceps m of the thigh
65.	Nervous tissue and the lining the stomodaeum and proctodaeum share a common embryonic origin:
	a.	ectoderm
	b.	mesoderm
	c.	endoderm
66.	Fast oxidative fibers contain
	a.	very little myoglobin
	b.	more mitochondria than fast glycolytic fibers
	c.	enough ATP to sustain rapid contractions for five minutes
67.	Arbor vitae are prominent features of the
	a.	spinal cord
	b.	medulla oblongata
	c.	cerebellum
68.	The abducens n
	a.	innervates the muscle that moves the eyeball laterally in the orbit
	b.	has very large motor units
	c.	is a spinal nerve
69.	Which of these degrades neurotransmitter substance?
	a.	cholinesterase (AChase)
	b.	catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
	c.	monoamine oxidase (MAO)
	d.	all of the above, each specific for its own substance
	Questions 70-101 are true/false.
70.	Smooth muscle fibers are the shortest type of muscle cell.
71.	The oxygen-binding protein myoglobin is stored in the T-tubules of skeletal muscle.
72.	The thin (actin) filaments contain a polypeptide subunit, G actin, that seems to have no function.
73.	Rigor mortis is caused by the cessation of ATP synthesis and the resulting irreversible cross-linking of actin and myosin.
74.	The net diffusion rate of a particle is related inversely to the square root of its molecular weight.
75.	The force of muscle contraction can be controlld by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.
76.	A nerve cell and all the muscle fibers that it stimulates is referred to as a motor end plate.
77.	During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement.
78.	One of the important functions of skeletal muscle is the production of heat.
79.	Oxygen debt refers to the oxygen required to make creatine phosphate.
80.	The all-or-none phenomenon as applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must be stimulated for conduction to take place.
81.	Saltatory conduction occurs because of the presence of NaCl around the neuron.
82.	During depolarization, the inside of the neuron’s membrane becomes less negative.
83.	Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than do small-diameter fibers.
84.	A stimulus traveling toward a synapse appears to open calcium channels at the presynaptic end, which in turn promotes fusion of the synaptic vesicles to the axonal membrane.
85.	Ramp potentials are useful in that altering the slope of the ramp will change the rate at which action potentials are generated.
86.	In skeletal muscle, the calcium necessary for contraction is stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
87.	A sustained partial contraction of a muscle is called muscle tone.
88.	The Cori cycle involves the breakdown of muscle glycogen to lactic acid and the conversion of glycogen in the liver where it can be reconverted to muscle glycogen after being sent back to the muscles.
89.	When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands move closer together, but do not diminish in length.
90.	Threshold is the membrane potential at which an action potential is generated.
91.	The release of ADP and Pifrom the myosin head occurs when the myosin head is tilted, during the power stroke.
92.	Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the arachnoid granulations in the superior sagittal sinus.
93.	Cerebellar lesions usually result in paralysis.
94.	The resting membrane potential is generated only by active transport.
95.	In the resting state, the sodium activation gate is open.
96.	The action potential of the sarcolemma is conveyed to the interior of the fiber along the T-tubule.
97.	The troponin molecule blocks the G-actin binding sites.
98.	A pair of tweezers is a good example of a second-class lever.
99.	Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.
100.	The motor cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
101.	One of the major functions of the pons is to regulate the endocrine system by producing releasing factors that control the function of the anterior pituitary.
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