bio4051:  human anatomy & physiology 2
exam 1 question sampler

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1.	The loudness of a person’s voice depends on the
	a.	thickness of the vestibular folds
	b.	length of the vocal folds
	c.	strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles
	d.	force with which air rushes across the vocal folds
2.	Select the correct statement about the pharynx.
	a.	The adenoid tonsils are located in the laryngopharynx.
	b.	The auditory (eustachian) tube drains into the nasopharynx.
	c.	The oropharynx blends caudally into the nasopharynx.
	d.	The palatine tonsils are embedded in the lateral walls of the nasopharynx.
3.	The larynx contains
	a.	the thyroid cartilage
	b.	a cricoid cartilage also called the Adam’s apple
	c.	an upper pair of avascular muscosal folds call the true vocal folds
	d.	lateral cartilage ridges called false vocal folds
4.	The oropharynx does not include the
	a.	fauces
	b.	palatine tonsils
	c.	lingual tonsils
	d.	pharyngeal tonsils
5.	Which of the following is not found on the right lung?
	a.	middle lobe
	b.	cardiac notch
	c.	horizontal fissure
	d.	oblique fissure
6.	Which of the following forms part of the boundary of the thoracic inlet?
	a.	rib 1
	b.	body of sternum
	c.	body of vertebra T12
	d.	clavicle
	e.	all are part of the boundary
7.	Which of the following would be found at the level of the sternal angle [of Louis]?
	a.	costal cartilage 3
	b.	intervertebral disk T4/T5
	c.	the xiphisternal articulation
	d.	all of these
	e.	none of these
8.	The aorta passes through the diaphragm at the level of vertebra
	a.	T4
	b.	T8
	c.	T10
	d.	T12
	e.	none of these.
9.	The trachea lies in the __________ mediastinum.
	a.	superior
	b.	anterior
	c.	middle
	d.	posterior
10.	The lining of the pleural cavity is the __________ pleura.
	a.	epicardial
	b.	parietal
	c.	endopleural
	d.	visceral
11.	The region on the mediastinal surface of the pleural cavity where the parietal pleura bends onto the visceral surface is called the
	a.	reflection of the pleura
	b.	hilus
	c.	cardiac notch
12.	The principal organ in the anterior mediastinum is the
	a.	heart
	b.	descending aorta
	c.	thymus
	d.	spleen
13.	Which of these is not a component of the thorax, as we defined it?
	a.	the intercostal spaces
	b.	body of the sternum
	c.	the posterior mediastinum
	d.	pectoralis major m
14.	How many lobes does the right lung have in the human?
	a.	one
	b.	two
	c.	three
	d.	four
	e.	more
15.	Which of these is not a function of the nasal cavity?
	a.	olfaction
	b.	phonation
	c.	speech
	d.	humidification of the inspired air
16.	Tonsils are found in the
	a.	nasopharynx
	b.	vestibule of the nasal cavity
	c.	trachea
	d.	alveolar lining
17.	A sensory neuron with its cell body in the dorsal root ganglion of a spinal nerve belongs to the class of neurons known as __________ neurons.
	a.	bipolar
	b.	pseudounipolar
	c.	multipolar
18.	The outermost meninx is the
	a.	dura mater
	b.	arachnoid
	c.	pia mater
19.	Which part of the brain deals with the coordination of motor function?
	a.	cerebral hemispheres
	b.	thalamus
	c.	cerebellum
	d.	reticular formation
20.	The connecting channel between the third and fourth ventricles is the
	a.	foramen of Magendie
	b.	sinus of Valsalva
	c.	cerebral aqueduct
	d.	hypophyseal infundibulum
21.	How many “lobes” are there to each cerebral hemisphere?
	a.	two
	b.	three
	c.	four
	d.	five
22.	Before visual and auditory signals are relayed to the cerebral cortex, they pass through the
	a.	mesencephalon
	b.	reticular formation
	c.	spinal cord nuclei
	d.	cerebellum
23.	Visual input is rendered into meaningful images in the __________ lobe of the cerebrum.
	a.	frontal
	b.	temporal
	c.	parietal
	d.	occipital
24.	Which of these is not a part of the circle of Willis?
	a.	anterior cerebral a
	b.	posterior cerebral a
	c.	anterior communicating a
	d.	basilar a
25.	The ridges on the cerebral hemispheres are called the
	a.	gyri
	b.	folia
	c.	sulci
26.	Blood supply to the brain is via the
	a.	internal carotid aa
	b.	vertebral aa
	c.	both of these
27.	The motor control of vocalization resides principally in
	a.	Broca’s area
	b.	Wernicke’s area
	c.	the hippocampus
	d.	the thalamus
28.	The primary auditory cortex is located in the __________ lobe.
	a.	prefrontal
	b.	frontal
	c.	temporal
	d.	parietal
29.	The subarachnoid space lies between which two layers of the meninges?
	a.	arachnoid and epidura
	b.	arachnoid and pia
	c.	arachnoid and dura
	d.	dura and epidura
30.	The basal ganglia are found in the
	a.	dorsal root of a spinal nerve
	b.	cerebellum
	c.	cerebrum
	d.	paravertebral chain
31.	The fissure separating the cerebral hemispheres is the __________ fissure.
	a.	central
	b.	longitudinal
	c.	Sylvian
	d.	parieto-occipital
32.	A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a
	a.	sulcus
	b.	fissure
	c.	gyrus
	d.	furrow
33.	The interpretation of auditory signals is performed principally in the cerebral
	a.	frontal lobe
	b.	temporal lobe
	c.	occipital lobe
	d.	insula
34.	Tracts of fibers connecting parts of one cerebral hemisphere with corresponding parts on the opposite cerebral hemisphere are called __________ tracts.
	a.	association
	b.	commissural
	c.	projection
35.	The central sulcus separates which two lobes?
	a.	frontal from parietal
	b.	parietal from temporal
	c.	temporal from parietal
	d.	frontal from temporal
36.	Brodmann’s numbers refer to
	a.	the mass of different types of neurons
	b.	the total count of neurons in a motor unit
	c.	functionally distinct cortical areas
	d.	rates of neural division in neurogenesis
37.	Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted into the ventricular system of the CNS using the
	a.	arachnoid granulations
	b.	choroid plexuses
	c.	foramen of Luschka
38.	What fold of meningeal dura separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum and houses the transverse and superior petrosal sinus?
	a.	falx cerebri
	b.	tentorium cerebelli
	c.	falx cerebelli
	d.	diaphragma sellae
39.	Broca’s area
	a.	corresponds to Brodmann areas 2 — 4
	b.	is usually found in the right cerebral hemisphere
	c.	serves as the site for face recognition
	d.	is considered a motor speech area
40.	Loss of the ability to perform skilled motor activities, such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in the specific muscles, might suggest damage to the
	a.	spinal cord
	b.	premotor cortex
	c.	primary motor cortex
	d.	rubrospinal tracts
41.	Which of these is a special sense?
	a.	proprioception
	b.	olfaction
	c.	temperature
	d.	tactile vibration
42.	Blocking the release of which of these neurotransmitters in pain transmission leads to analgesia?
	a.	acetylcholine
	b.	substance P
	c.	norepinephrine
	d.	dopamine
43.	Under normal circumstances, to which of these normal-level stimuli would the photoreceptors in the human retina respond?
	a.	changes in vitreous humor pH
	b.	photons of light
	c.	changes in intraocular pressure
	d.	UV radiation
	e.	{b} and {d}
44.	What substance released from damaged tissue sensitizes the nociceptor free nerve endings?
	a.	tissue plasminogen activator
	b.	histamine
	c.	prostaglandins
	d.	adenosine
45.	Nicotinic receptors would not be found where?
	a.	postsynaptic membranes of postganglionic parasympathetics
	b.	postsynaptic membranes at parasympathetic neuroeffector junctions
	c.	postsynaptic membranes at α-adrenergic neuroeffector junctions
	d.	both {b} and {c}
46.	End-plate potentials (EPPs) are
	a.	larger than EPSPs
	b.	smaller than EPSPs
	c.	of the same magnitude as EPSPs
47.	The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of
	a.	parasympathetic innervation
	b.	sympathetic stimulation
	c.	vagal activity
	d.	neurohormones
48.	In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system
	a.	has two efferent neurons
	b.	has two afferent neurons
	c.	stimulates its effector cells
	d.	has both efferent and afferent fibers
49.	Which of these poisons irreversibly inhibit acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?
	a.	black widow spider venom
	b.	botulinum toxin
	c.	curare
	d.	organophosphates
50.	Which of these autonomic activities is controlled at the level of spinal reflexes?
	a.	blushing
	b.	increased cardiac output
	c.	decreased gut peristalsis
	d.	erection
51.	Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve
	a.	V
	b.	VII
	c.	X
	d.	XII
52.	The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the
	a.	lumbar splanchnic nerves
	b.	cephalic plexus
	c.	pelvic nerves
	d.	tenth cranial nerve
53.	The two divisions of the ANS generally
	a.	have complementary effects
	b.	do not interact
	c.	have similar effects
	d.	have opposite effects
54.	Autonomic tone allows autonomic neurons to
	a.	increase their activity
	b.	decrease their activity
	c.	both increase and decrease their activity
	d.	none of the above
55.	The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called
	a.	consolidation
	b.	automatic memory
	c.	long-term memory
	d.	rehearsal
56.	Which of the following structures is probably not directly involved in memory?
	a.	hippocampus
	b.	medulla oblongata
	c.	amygdala
	d.	prefrontal cortex
57.	Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic division secrete
	a.	norepinephrine and acetylcholine
	b.	acetylcholine
	c.	cyclic AMP
	d.	nitrous oxide and carbon monoxide
58.	The mapping of the somatic sensory field to the postcentral gyrus is
	a.	ipsilateral and right-side up
	b.	ipsilateral and up-side down
	c.	contralateral and up-side down
	d.	contralateral and right-side up
59.	Postganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete
	a.	acetylcholine
	b.	norepinephrine and acetylcholine
	c.	aflatoxin
	d.	carbon monoxide
60.	Ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division are located in the
	a.	adrenal medulla [as the epinephrine and norepinephrine secreting cells]
	b.	prevertebral ganglia
	c.	sympathetic chain ganglia
	d.	all of the above
61.	The prevertebral (collateral) ganglia of the ANS include the
	a.	vestibulocochlear, trochlear, and lacrimal
	b.	mandibular, maxillary, and ophthalmic
	c.	celiac, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesenteric
62.	What is the commonest neurotransmitter used to excite the muscle fiber?
	a.	dopamine
	b.	GABA
	c.	acetylcholine
	d.	norepinephrine
63.	Where does the nerve innervating the skeletal muscle fiber have its terminus?
	a.	closest to the origin of the muscle
	b.	in the middle of the fiber
	c.	closest to the insertion of the muscle
	d.	wherever seemed best at the time
64.	The inability to recognize faces is
	a.	presbyopia
	b.	dyslexia
	c.	dysbarism
	d.	prosophenosia
65.	Which of these functions occurs in the prefrontal areas?
	a.	visual image formation
	b.	speech recognition
	c.	tactile discrimination
	d.	controlling one’s actions in accord with moral laws
66.	Prolongation of depolarization at a synapse is an example of
	a.	facilitation
	b.	anomia
	c.	motor aphasia
	d.	dyslexia
67.	The parasympathetic division is also called
	a.	lumbosacral
	b.	craniosacral
	c.	thoracolumbar
	d.	thoracosacral
68.	Which of these is not a component of the autonomic nervous system?
	a.	vagus n
	b.	cervical spinal nerves
	c.	intrinsic plexus of the gut tube
	d.	cranial nerves
	Questions 69–102 are True/False.
69.	The roof of the nasal cavity is formed by parts of the frontal bone.
70.	The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence in the nasal cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to air.
71.	Since the autonomic nervous system is a visceral motor system, afferent pathways are of no importance and actually are rarely found.
72.	The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the affected target.
73.	The primary visual sensory are of the cerebral cortex is located in the occipital lobe.
74.	The basal ganglia (basal nuclei) are gray matter areas buried deep with the white matter of the cerebellum.
75.	Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space outside the brain.
76.	The left cerebral hemisphere is usually dominant.
77.	Destruction of the hippocampus and amygdala regions of the brain results in widespread amnesia, especially fro recent facts and events.
78.	Awareness of changes in the internal and external environments is called sensation.
79.	The third and fourth ventricles are separated by the septum pellucidum.
80.	Projection fibers in the brain connect the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
81.	Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the hypothalamus.
82.	Almost all sensory input to the brain is processed in the thalamus before it is [or isn’t] relayed to the cerebrum.
83.	Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the arachnoid granulations in the superior sagittal sinus.
84.	The larynx is “roofed” by the thyroid cartilage.
85.	Each lung has an indentation, the pulmonic pelvis, through which blood vessels enter and leave the lung.
86.	The fibrous pericardium prevents transient over distension of the heart, but it can stretch with time to accommodate chronic heart enlargement due to a disease state such as congestive heart failure.
87.	The diaphragm, separating the thorax from the abdomen, is composed only of muscle.
88.	In order to regulate motor activity, to start and stop movements, and to coordinate postural movements, both the cerebellum and basal nuclei are involved.
89.	The epiglottis is a smooth muscle membrane that covers the glottis during swallowing.
90.	The alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes (basal laminae) form the respiratory membrane.
91.	The paired lungs are located in the mediastinum.
92.	The “visceral pericardium” — i.e., the epicardium — is composed of two layers.
93.	Cerebellar lesions usually result in paralysis.
94.	Equilibrium sensory input is not restricted to the various proprioceptors, but includes visual signals as well.
95.	The parietal pleura lines the wall of the pleura cavity.
96.	The uvula is a continuation of the soft palate.
97.	Is our perception of realty “real?” In other words, does it encompass the entire spectrum of possible perceptions?
98.	The premotor cortex of the cerebral hemispheres stores engrams of motor activity, allowing you to perform skilled actions without having to call sequentially each motor output and then process its proprioceptive return before initiating the next step.
99.	Wernicke’s area is an extremely important general interpretative area of the cerebrum. If there is severe damage to this area, a person might hear perfectly well and even recognize different words, but would probably be unable to arrange these words into a coherent thought.
100.	The inability to localize a sensation to its precise place on the body could be caused by a lesion in the primary somatic sensory area [post-central gyrus].
101.	The lateral sulcus — the Sylvian fissure — separates the temporal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere from the occipital lobe.
102.	Most body organs are innervated only by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
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