bio4051:  human anatomy & physiology 2
exam 2 question sampler

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2004-08-04.  Question 55 “vessel A, for volume V A, pressure increase P A” reworded to read
                    “vessel A, for volume increase V A, pressure increase P A”.
2004-08-03.  Question 9 revised to provide only one best answer.
2004-08-02.  Question 5 revised to provide a correct answer.

1.In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as
 a.the cell’s sensitivity reaction
 b.cellular affinity
 d.a reaction to a stressor
2.Although we speak of the pituitary releasing factors produced by hypothalamic neurons as hormones, they would better be classified as
3.Catecholamines and peptide hormones bind to receptors on the surface of cells that comprise the target organs. This binding causes immediate change in genetic activity
 b.the opening of a sodium channel
 c.the activation of a potassium channel
 d.adenylate cyclase to generate cyclic AMP from ATP
4.During pregnancy, progesterone produced by the placenta has what role to play with respect to estrogen?
5.Which organ does not have any hormone production?
6.The lipophobic hormones might use which of the following postreceptor events?
 a.activation of adenylate cyclase
 b.opening of voltage-gated sodium channels in the plasma membrane
 c.modification of the receptor molecule or transfer of the hormone to a different carrier
 d.{a} or {b}
7.ACTH secreted by the posterior pituitary
 b.secretion is regulated by an hypothalamic secretion
 c.causes the release of adrenal medullary hormones not a tropic hormone
8.In what type of muscle does oxytocin cause contraction?
 a.skeletal muscle in the diaphragm
 b.cardiac muscle
 c.uterine smooth muscle and myoepithelial cells in the mammary glands
 d.all of the above
9.Enzyme action converts pro-opiomelanocortin into
 b.beta endorphin
 c.carotene-stimulating hormone
 e.{a} and {b}
10.Which of these hormones is not produced by the adrenal cortex?
 b.DHEA (dehydroepiandrosterone)
11.The major targets of growth hormone are the
 a.blood vessels
 b.adrenal glands
 d.bones and skeletal muscles
12.Which of these hormones would be synthesized in smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
 b.DHEA (dehydroepiandrosterone)
 c.growth hormone
13.Insulin, a small, 51-amino-acid protein, is synthesized by the beta cells of the pancreas. This hormone is released excessive amounts in obese individuals response to several physical stress
 c.when blood glucose levels rise
 d.when blood glucose levels fall
14.Hormone levels are regulated by changes in secretion rate. This may come about because of
 a.positive feedback
 b.neuromuscular reflexes
 c.circadian rhythms
 d.any of the above
15.ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
 a.increases urine output
 b.promotes dehydration produced by the adenohypophysis inhibited by alcohol
16.The precursor molecule for all steroid hormones is
 a.DHEA (dehydroepiandrosterone)
17.Sometimes prolonged exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as
 a.diabetes mellitus
 b.cellular inhibition
 c.receptor down-regulation
 d.protein kinase catabolism
18.The release of histamine by a mast cell to effect vasodilatation in the nearby tissue is an example of the release of a
19.Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?
20.Erythropoietin is produced by what organ?
 b.islets of Langerhans
21.Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?
 a.they are carbohydrates
 b.they are composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains
 c.they have three binding sites per antibody monomer
 d.they cannot be transferred from one person to another
22.Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens (also called human leukocyte associated, or HLA, antigens) are unique to each person’s body cells. These self-antigens aid in the detection of foreign invaders. MHC class II antigens are found on blood cells only
 b.all nucleated cells
 c.B-lymphocytes and some T-lymphocytes
 d.antigen-presenting cells
 e.{c} and {d}
23.Which statement is true about T cells?
 a.They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells.
 b.Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.
 c.Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines.
 d.They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins.
24.The antigenic determinant of a foreign substance is the
 c.complement factor
25.Antibody functions include all of the following except
 a.binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms
 b.cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood cell types are properly matched
 c.linking soluble antigens together so that they precipitate
 d.targeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cytolysis
26.The anaphylactic reaction is a(n) __________ allergic reaction.
 a.immediate hypersensitivity
 b.delayed hypersensitivity
27.Which of the following is true about the number of binding sites per functional antibody unit?
 a.IgD has four binding sites.
 b.IgA has six binding sites.
 c.IgG has six binding sites.
 d.IgM has ten binding sites.
29.Which of the following is a localized, nonspecific response to infection?
 b.humoral immunity
29.Select the correct statement about complement.
 a.A specific immune mechanism is often involved in directing complement to its target.
 b.Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, secondary, and alternate.
 c.The membrane attack complex (MAC) consists of complement proteins C3a through C5.
 d.Complement proteins C1 through C9 are exclusively in the classical pathway.
30.T lymphocytes develop in the bone marrow and attain immunologic competency in the
 c.lymph nodes
31.Which of the following is not a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disease?
 a.exposure of previously “hidden” self-antigens to the adaptive immune system
 b.a second exposure to an allergen
 c.mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present
 d.cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens
32.This is the predominant Ig class in body secretions; hence it is called the “secretory antibody.”
33.Which type of antibodies can cross the placenta and confer passive immunity on the fetus/neonate?
34.Occurring as a pentamer, this is the first antibody to be produced.
35.Which type of antibodies are involved in allergic reactions?
36.Select the correct statement about antigens.
 a.“Self-antigens” is another term for incomplete antigens.
 b.The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.
 c.Only very small antigens exhibit reactivity.
 d.One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may thus cause the formation of more than one antibody.
37.The formation of antigen-antibody complexes might trigger the complement cascade at C1. This is called the
 a.classical pathway
 b.alternative pathway
 c.C3-convertase inhibitor pathway
38.The primary immune response
 a.occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response
 b.occurs when memory cells are stimulated another term for immunological memory
 d.has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
39.When a macrophage presents antigen to a lymphocyte, it does so in context of __________.
40.Select the correct statement about the role of the nervous system in regulating the immune response.
 a.Many immune cells have receptors for neurotransmitters.
 b.The ability of one’s state of mind to influence immune function is now accepted as proven by the medical community.
 c.There is no evidence that the nervous system can influence the immune system.
 d.{a} and {b}
41.Polio vaccine confers __________ on the subject.
 a.passive immunity immunity
 c.natural immunity
 d.monoclonal antibodies
42.C3b molecules coat a microorganism and roughen its surface, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytose it. The phenomenon is called
43.__________ T-cells destroy cells infected with virus.
44.Grafts between identical twins are
45.Plasma cells are derived from
 a.NK cells
46.Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called
47.Although we mostly associate eosinophil function with allergic reactions, the cell was originally evolved to deal, most effectively, with
 a.antigen-antibody complexes
 b.helminth infections
48.The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by
 c.mobilization of phagocytes
 d.production of complement and interferon
49.Blood flow is
 a.inversely proportional to the pressure difference between the two ends of the vessel
 b.inversely proportional to the resistance offered by the vessel
 c.equal to the viscosity of the blood
50.Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?
 a.excitation of the SA node
 b.closure of the heart valves
 c.friction of blood against the chamber walls
 d.contraction of the ventricular myocardium
51.Dilatation of these increases blood flow to a localized tissue bed.
52.Damage to the __________ is referred to as heart block.
 a.SA node
 b.AV valves
 c.AV bundle
 d.AV node
53.If total peripheral resistance __________, the flow rate through the systemic vessels __________.
 e.{b} and {c}
54.When the heart is beating at a rate of 75 times per minute, the duration of one cardiac cycle is __________ second(s).
55.Vascular compliance = (increase in volume)/(increase in pressure). Now consider two vessels: vessel A, for volume increase V A, pressure increase P A, has a compliance of 1. In vessel B, a pressure increase = 2 x PA results in a the same volume increase, VA. Is vessel B
 a.more compliant than A
 b.less compliant than A
 c.the same compliance as A
56.Select the correct statement about myocardial cell function.
 a.The all-or-none law as applied to cardiac muscle means that the entire heart contracts as a unit (functional syncytium) or does not contract at all.
 b.Cardiac muscle fibers are each innervated by a sympathetic nerve ending so that the nervous system can increase the heart rate.
 c.The refractory period in cardiac muscle is much shorter than that in skeletal muscle.
 d.The influx of potassium ions from the transverse tubule lumen into the sarcoplasm is the initiating event in cardiac muscle contraction.
57.The AV valves and semilunar valves are both open during
 a.ventricular filling
 b.ventricular ejection
 c.isovolumic ventricular contraction
 d.isovolumic ventricular relaxation
 e.none of the above
58.If you were able to alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx would be more rapid,
 a.heart rate would decrease
 b.calcium channels in the pacemaker cells would be cycling at a greater rate
 c.blood pressure would rise due to increased plasma sodium
 d.tetanic contraction would occur due to the short absolute refractory period of cardiac muscle
59.In most beds, increased CO2 levels within the tissue bed would result in vascular changes
60.Valves are not found in
 a.lymphatic vessels
 d.arteries or veins
61.The period of the cardiac cycle during which the ventricles are contracting is called ventricular
62.Isovolumic (isovolumetric) contraction
 a.refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers
 b.occurs when the AV valves open
 c.occurs immediately after the semilunar valves close indicative of valvular heart disease
63.Which event marks the beginning of ventricular filling?
 a.P wave
 b.T wave
 c.closure of the semilunar valve
 d.opening of the AV valves
 e.opening of the semilunar valve
64.Most arterioles do not have parasympathetic innervation. Vessels in which of these structures dilate in response to parasympathetic stimulation?
65.Which statement best describes arteries?
 a.All carry oxygenated blood.
 b.All carry blood away from the heart.
 c.All contain valves to prevent blood from retrograde flow.
 d.Only the largest have endothelial linings.
66.The second heart sound is associated with closure of the __________ and occurs during __________
 a.AV valves/atrial systole
 b.AV valves/ventricular systole
 c.semilunar valves/atrial systole
 d.semilunar valves/ventricular repolarization
67.The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle with each beat is known as the
 a.stroke volume
 b.heart rate
 c.ventricular ejection fraction
 d.cardiac output
68.The influence of blood vessel diameter on peripheral resistance is
 a.the only factor that affects resistance
 b.very large because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius
 c.negligible unless vessel diameter is very large (>2.0 cm)
 d.very small because vessel diameter is invariant
69.A 30-year old female with a blood pressure of 120/80, a heart rate of 70, and a stroke volume of 70 ml would have a cardiac output of
 a.6000 ml
 b.4200 ml
 c.4900 ml
 d.70 ml
70.An increase in the heart rate, while the cardiac output remains constant, would
 a.increase the stroke volume output.
 b.decrease the stroke volume output.
 c.have no effect on stroke volume output.
71.In the dynamics of blood flow through the capillaries, capillary hydrostatic pressure
 a.does not play a role the blood pressure
 c.generally forces fluid from the interstitial space into the capillary completely canceled out by the blood osmotic pressure
72.If a person has a blood pressure of 120/80, then the pulse pressure would be
 a.40 mmHg.
 b.45 mmHg.
 c.125 mmHg.
 d.80 mmHg.
73.Modified capillaries that are lined with phagocytes are called
 c.thoroughfare channels
74.Elephantiasis is caused by
 a.reactive hyperemia
 b.the filarial parasitic worm
 c.protein deficiency
75.Which of these factors would increase the end-diastolic volume?
 a.increased force of ventricular contraction
 b.increased pulmonary resistance
 c.decreased peripheral [systemic] resistance
 d.AV-nodal block
76.Select the correct statement about blood flow.
 a.Blood flow is constant in all body organs.
 b.Blood flow is measured in the units mm Hg.
 c.Blood flow is greatest where the resistance is the highest.
 d.Blood flow through the entire vascular system is equivalent to the cardiac output.
77.Which vessels are the major sites of resistance in the vascular system?
78.Which of the following factors would increase arterial pressure (assuming all other factors remained unchanged)?
 a.decreased stroke volume
 c.decreased heart rate
 d.increased total peripheral resistance
79.The driving force for blood flow through a capillary bed is increased plasma oncotic pressure
 c.precapillary arteriolar constriction
 d.a pressure difference between the proximal and distal ends of the capillary
80.Aldosterone will
 a.promote an increase in blood pressure
 b.promote a decrease in blood volume
 c.result in a larger urinary output
 d.decrease sodium reabsorption
81.Let us assume that we have two blood vessels, A and B. The diameter of vessel A is 10 µm, that of B 30 µm. If the pressure drop across the two vessels is the same, what is the flow in B if the flow in A is 5 µl/sec?
 a.5 µl/sec
 b.15 µl/sec
 c.45 µl/sec
 d.405 µl/sec
82.Peripheral resistance
 a.decreases with increasing length of a blood vessel
 b.increases as blood vessel diameter increases
 c.increases as blood viscosity increases never a major factor in blood pressure in healthy individuals
83.These are the blood reservoirs; more than half the blood is found in them.
84.Fenestrated capillaries are
 a.not more permeable than continuous capillaries
 b.least common in endocrine organs and where capillary absorption is important
 c.absent from glomerular capillaries in the kidney
 d.not found in the brain

 The following statements are true/false:
85.The antagonistic hormones that regulate blood calcium levels are calcitonin and parathormone.
86.Insulin elevates blood glucose concentrations.
87.The thyroid gland is embedded as small nodules in the mass of the parathyroid.
88.Many hormones synthesized by enteroendocrine cells are chemically identical to brain neurotransmitters.
89.All adenohypophyseal hormones affect their target cells via a cAMP second-messenger system.
90.Hormonal systems employing direct gene activation involve using a second-messenger system.
91.Diabetes insipidus and diabetes mellitus are both caused by a genetic mutation involving the synthesis of insulin.
92.Iodine in an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.
93.Antibodies and complement fixation mediate delayed hypersensitivity reactions.
94.Immune responses are sometimes not beneficial to the body
95.Some immunocompetent cells will never be called to duty during our lifetime.
96.A graft from a monkey to a human is an allograft.
97.The soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells are called antibodies.
98.Autoimmune diseases are more common in men than women.
99.The B lymphocyte population is capable of producing antibodies against at least 106 different antigens.
100.Perforins are cytolytic molecules used by NK cells.
101.Autoregulation is the adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time.
102.All the blood in each ventricle is ejected during systole.
103.Osmotic pressure is the force exerted by a fluid pressing against a wall.
104.Vasodilatation is the widening of the vessel lumen due to smooth muscle contraction.
105.When blood flows from very small diameter vessels into larger diameter vessels, the resistance decreases.
106.Reflexes that regulate blood pressure are integrated at the brain stem level.
107.An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance.
108.The cardiac index normalizes an individual\rquotes cardiac output to body surface area to allow for a better comparison of cardiac function. If this were not done, then a morbidly obese individual with a cardiac output of 4.2 l/min would appear healthier than a thin person with a cardiac output of 4.0 l/min.