bio4052:  human anatomy & physiology 3
exam 1 question sampler

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	Respiratory system physiology
1.	__________ has the greatest solubility in the blood.
	a.	Nitrogen
	b.	Oxygen
	c.	Carbon dioxide
2.	In a gas with a total pressure of 600 mmHg that contains 10% oxygen, 20% carbon dioxide, and 70% nitrogen, the partial pressure of nitrogen would be
	a.	70 mmHg
	b.	420 mmHg
	c.	600 mmHg
3.	All other factors remaining unchanged except for the level of humidification, the partial pressure of O2in humidified air is ... in atmospheric air.
	a.	less than
	b.	the same as
	c.	greater than
4.	By which of the following means can carbon dioxide be transported in the blood?
	a.	in solution.
	b.	combined with the heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule.
	c.	as bicarbonate ion.
	d.	all of these.
	e.	{a} and {c} only.
5.	The chemosensitive area responds to blood changes in
	a.	PCO2
	b.	H ions
	c.	both {a} and {b}
6.	The basic rhythm of respiration is determined by the
	a.	apneustic center
	b.	chemosensitive area
	c.	dorsal respiratory group
	c.	ventral respiratory group
7.	This group is normally quiet, being called into play during forceful inspiration/expiration.
	a.	apneustic center
	b.	chemosensitive area
	c.	dorsal respiratory group
	c.	ventral respiratory group
8.	The heme molecule contains an iron atom in the middle of its porphyrin. What is the state of this iron atom?
	a.	reduced [Fe2+]
	b.	oxidized [Fe3+]
	c.	metallic
9.	The diffusion coefficient of CO2is approximately __________ times that of O2.
	a.	20
	b.	1.5
	c.	0.5
10.	At 37° C, the vapor pressure of water is
	a.	47 mm Hg
	b.	159 mm Hg
	c.	760 mm Hg
11.	In human adults, the normal tidal volume is approximately
	a.	150 mL
	b.	500 mL
	c.	1100 mL
	d.	3500 mL
12.	The process of exchanging air between the external environment and the alveoli is called
	a.	ventilation
	b.	respiration
	c.	transpiration
	d.	extirpation
13.	What is the partial pressure of water vapor in the lungs?
	a.	21%
	b.	47 mmHg
	c.	159 mmHg
	d.	0.5%
14.	What is the approximate PO2 of venous blood?
	a.	159 mmHg
	b.	104 mmHg
	c.	40 mmHg
	d.	100 mmHg
15.	Which gas has the greatest solubility in the blood?
	a.	nitrogen
	b.	carbon dioxide
	c.	oxygen
16.	Under resting conditions, the most important stimulus for breathing is
	a.	arterial CO2
	b.	body temperature
	c.	arterial O2
	d.	the degree of stretch of the lungs
	e.	none of these
17.	One of the factors contributing to successful exchange across the respiratory membrane is its thinness. On average, just how thin is it?
	a.	0.54 mm
	b.	0.63 µm
	c.	0.82 nm
18.	How many oxygen molecules can a hemoglobin molecule carry?
	a.	two
	b.	three
	c.	four
19.	The driving force for the net diffusion of a gas in one direction is the gas’s __________
	a.	concentration gradient
	b.	solubility coefficient
	c.	molecular weight
20.	Most CO2is transported in the blood
	a.	in solution
	b.	as carbaminoHb
	c.	as bicarbonate ion
21.	Assume two containers of the same gas mixture, where P1=P2, V1=V2, and T1=T2. What happens to P2 if I decrease V2 but leave T1=T2?
	a.	P2increases
	b.	P2decreases
	c.	P2stays the same
22.	The relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas is given by __________ law.
	a.	Boyle’s
	b.	Henry’s
	c.	Charles’
	d.	Dalton’s
23.	Intrapulmonary pressure is the
	a.	pressure within the pleural cavity
	b.	pressure within the alveoli of the lung
	c.	negative pressure in the intrapleural space
	d.	difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure
24.	The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing a healthy person is
	a.	loss of oxygen in tissues
	b.	increase in carbon dioxide
	c.	decreased pH (acidosis)
	d.	increased pH (alkalosis)
25.	Nerve impulses from __________ will result in inspiration.
	a.	the dorsal respiratory group
	b.	the chemosensistive area
	c.	Broca’s area
	d.	the preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
26.	Another name for the inflation reflex is the
	a.	Bohr effect
	b.	Haldane effect
	c.	Hering-Breuer reflex
	d.	pulmonary irritant reflex
27.	Which of the following does not influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated?
	a.	psychic stimuli
	b.	fall in lactic acid levels
	c.	proprioceptors
	d.	simultaneous cortical motor activation of the skeletal muscles and respiratory center
28.	Impairments of oxygen transport include
	a.	anemic hypoxia, usually caused by congestive heart failure
	b.	carbon monoxide poisoning, a form of hypoxemic hypoxia
	c.	stagnant hypoxia, due to a functional problem with the lungs
	d.	hypoxemic hypoxia, resulting from a decrease in levels of functional red blood cells
29.	Which of the following provides the greatest surface area for gas exchange?
	a.	alveolar sacs
	b.	alveoli
	c.	respiratory bronchioles
	d.	alveolar ducts
30.	Which of the following is a respiratory air movement?
	a.	inhaling
	b.	coughing
	c.	sneezing
	d.	phonation
101.	Carbon dioxide binds with hemoglobin at the same site as oxygen
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
102.	If the amount and pressure of a gas are held constant, the volume will decrease when the temperature is increased.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
103.	The movement of bicarbonate ions from the red blood cell into the plasma is compensated for by the movement of chloride ions from the plasma into the RBC.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
104.	Increased temperature results in decreased O2unloading from hemoglobin.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
105.	Normal respiratory rate and rhythm is eupnea.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
106.	Atelectasis (lung collapse) renders the lung useless for ventilation.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
107.	Volume changes lead to pressure changes, which lead to the movement of gases to equalize the pressure.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
108.	Oxygenated hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily when the pH is more basic.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
109.	As carbon dioxide enters systemic blood, it causes more oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin (the Haldane effect), which in turn allows more carbon dioxide to combine with hemoglobin and more bicarbonate ion to be generated (the Bohr effect).
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
110.	Dalton’s law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
	Digestive system anatomy
201.	The connection between the greater and lesser omental bursae is the
	a.	epiploïc foramen (of Winslow)
	b.	inguinal canal
	c.	ductus arteriosus
	d.	foramen of Magendie
202.	The lamina propria is part of the
	a.	mucosa
	b.	submucosa
	c.	muscularis externa
	d.	serosa
	e.	adventitia
203.	Which of these is not a peritoneal structure?
	a.	lesser omentum
	b.	gastrolienic ligament
	c.	transverse mesocolon
	d.	patellar ligament
204.	Cranial parasympathetic impulses are delivered to the digestive tract via the
	a.	olfactory nerve
	b.	glossopharyngeal nerve
	c.	hypoglossal nerve
	d.	vagus nerve
205.	The embryonic starting point for the developing thyroid gland is the
	a.	lingual frenulum
	b.	foramen cecum
	c.	arytenoid cartilage
	d.	ductus venosus
206.	If an individual is said to be tongue-tied, it is because the __________ is too short.
	a.	superior labial frenulum (frenum)
	b.	inferior labial frenulum
	c.	lingual frenulum
	d.	genioglossus m
207.	Postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic system are located in the
	a.	celiac ganglion
	b.	myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus
	c.	submucosal (Meissner’s) plexus
	d.	both {b} and {c}
208.	Which of these represents the deciduous dental formula?
	a.	2-1-0-2
	b.	2-1-3-2
	c.	3-1-2-2
	d.	2-1-2-3
209.	The pulp cavity of a tooth is surrounded by?
	a.	ameloblasts
	b.	dentin
	c.	gingiva
	d.	Sharpey’s fibers
210.	The parotid salivary gland
	a.	opens into sublingual caruncles
	b.	is drained by Wharton’s duct
	c.	overlies Stenson’s duct
	d.	produces a purely mucous secretion
	e.	none of these
211.	The sphincter between the stomach and duodenum is the
	a.	pyloric sphincter
	b.	cardioesophageal sphincter
	c.	ileocecal valve
	d.	none of these
212.	The vermiform appendix is attached to the
	a.	terminal ileum
	b.	cecum
	c.	ascending colon
	d.	porta hepatis
213.	The ligament of Treitz is found at the
	a.	pyloroduodenal junction
	b.	duodenojejunal flexure
	c.	ileocecal valve
	d.	sigmoidorectal junction
214.	The bare area of the liver
	a.	lies on the inferior surface of the liver
	b.	covers the quadrate lobe
	c.	does not have a peritoneal covering
	d.	all of these
215.	The cystic duct joins the common bile duct to the
	a.	duodenal papilla
	b.	R & L hepatic ducts
	c.	gallbladder
	d.	none of these
216.	The islets of Langerhans are endocrine-cell clusters within the
	a.	liver
	b.	gallbladder
	c.	pyloric region of the stomach
	d.	pancreas
217.	Which of these digestive system organs is not found in the abdominopelvic cavity?
	a.	esophagus
	b.	stomach
	c.	sigmoid colon
	d.	rectum
	e.	all are
218.	The junction of the __________ with the superior mesenteric v forms the hepatic portal v.
	a.	gastroepiploïc v
	b.	inferior mesenteric v
	c.	splenic v
	d.	internal iliac v
219.	The jejunal a, a branch of the SMA, belongs to which organ system?
	a.	cardiovascular system
	b.	digestive system
	c.	urinary system
	d.	musculoskeletal system
	e.	endocrine system
220.	The function of the hepatic portal system is to
	a.	carry toxins to the venous system for disposal through the urinary tract
	b.	collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage before releasing them to the circulation for cellular use
	c.	distribute hormones
	d.	return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low
221.	The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called
	a.	mesenteries
	b.	the lamina propria
	c.	serosal linings
	d.	mucosal linings
222.	The structure known as the fauces is the
	a.	submaxillary gland
	b.	epiglottis
	c.	thyroid gland
	d.	passageway from the oral cavity to the pharynx
223.	The plicae circulares and intestinal villi are found in which of the four layers of the gut tube wall?
	a.	mucosa
	b.	serosa
	c.	adventitia
	d.	muscularis externa
224.	Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth?
	a.	There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge.
	b.	There are 27 permanent teeth, and the first molars are usually the last to emerge.
	c.	The number of permanent teeth is always the same as the number of primary teeth.
	d.	The number of upper permanent teeth is not equal to the number of lower permanent teeth.
225.	Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells in the stomach?
	a.	chief cells
	b.	parietal cells
	c.	serous cells
	d.	mucous neck cells
301.	The superior mesenteric artery (SMA) supplies structures derived from the embryonic hindgut.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
302.	In general, stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system inhibits activity in the gastrointestinal tract. Strong stimulation of the sympathetic system can totally block movement of food through the tract.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
303.	Sympathetic input to the gut tube comes via the vagus n.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
304.	90% of the water ingested and present in the digestive secretions is reabsorbed by the large intestine.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
305.	The accessory pancreatic duct (of Santorini) is found in 90\endash 95% of all females.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
306.	Peyer’s patches are found in the submucosa of the distal part of the ileum.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
307.	Dentin anchors the tooth in the socket.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
308.	At the junction of the main pancreatic duct and the common bile duct is an enlarged area called the hapatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater).
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
309.	Another term for swallowing is deglutition.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
310.	The layer of muscularis externa in the intestine that is directly in contact with the serosa is the circular layer.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
	Digestive system physiology Metabolism and energetics
401.	Although not an enzyme, this is extremely important in the digestion of lipids.
	a.	amylase
	b.	bile
	c.	lactase
	d.	pepsin
402.	Under physiological conditions, the amount of available energy from the two high energy phosphate bonds in ATP is approximately __________ per mole.
	a.	12500 calories
	b.	25000 calories
	c.	50000 calories
403.	The energy expended during propagation of a nerve impulse is used primarily to fuel the __________ after nerve action potentials have been conducted.
	a.	resynthesis of neurotransmitter
	b.	sodium-potassium pump
	c.	update of choline
404.	The entry point for glucose into glycogenesis is as
	a.	glucose-1-phosphate
	b.	glycogen
	c.	glucose-6-phosphate
405.	The energy currency of the cell is
	a.	ATP
	b.	phosphocreatine
	c.	glucose
406.	One calorie is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gm of water __________
	a.	10° Celsius
	b.	1° Celsius
	c.	100° Celsius
407.	Lipids are transported in the blood in combination with
	a.	micelles
	b.	cellulose
	c.	proteins
408.	An amino acid that the body cannot synthesize on its own is called a(n) __________ amino acid
	a.	essential
	b.	primary
	c.	tertiary
409.	A substance that can activate phosphorylase for glycogenolysis is
	a.	epinephrine
	b.	glucagon
	c.	both of these
410.	The hormone that increases blood glucose levels is
	a.	glucagon
	b.	insulin
	c.	somatomedin
411.	Digestive enzymes break the bonds between the monomeric building blocks of a macromolecule by the process of
	a.	dehydration
	b.	esterification
	c.	hydrolysis
412.	Most water is removed from the digestive tract by the
	a.	large intestine
	b.	kidneys
	c.	small intestine
	d.	stomach
413.	Digestion of starch begins in the __________ with the secretion of an amylase.
	a.	small intestine
	b.	stomach
	c.	oral cavity
414.	Terminal digestion of foodstuffs into absorbable molecules occurs by the use of enzymes found in the __________ of the intestinal absorptive cells.
	a.	mitochondria
	b.	brush border
	c.	lysosomes
415.	Energy that can be derived from foods without the simultaneous use of oxygen is
	a.	aerobic energy
	b.	Gibbs’ free energy
	c.	anaerobic energy
	d.	energy of activation
416.	Which of these factors would increase the metabolic rate?
	a.	maximal release of thyroxine
	b.	strenuous exercise
	c.	eating a meal containing large quantities of protein
	d.	all of these
417.	Which exercise results in the greatest energy expenditure?
	a.	walking up stairs
	b.	walking at 5.3 miles per hour
	c.	swimming
	d.	carpentry
418.	You are a 55 kg female, aged 37. If you sit in a chair all day, reading, your energy expenditure over eight hours is approximately
	a.	500 Calories
	b.	800 Calories
	c.	1200 Calories
	d.	1650 Calories
	e.	2000 Calories
419.	In order to measure a basal metabolic rate accurately, the subject must not have eaten any food for at least
	a.	six hours
	b.	12 hours
	c.	24 hours
	d.	two days
420.	The basic propulsive movement of the gastrointestinal tract is
	a.	peristalsis
	b.	slow waves
	c.	local constrictive contractions
	d.	segmentation contractions
421.	Which of these sphincters is under voluntary control?
	a.	lower esophageal
	b.	pyloric
	c.	sigmo-rectal
	d.	external anal
422.	Which of these hormones, secreted by upper small bowel mucosa in response to fat, decreases motor activity of the stomach?
	a.	gastric inhibitory peptide
	b.	cholecystokinin
	c.	secretin
	d.	none of these
423.	Mixing of chyme in the small intestine is accomplished primarily by
	a.	mass movements
	b.	deglutition
	c.	peristalsis
	d.	segmentation contractions
424.	The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as
	a.	gluconeogenesis
	b.	fat sparing
	c.	carbohydrate utilization
	d.	lipolysis
425.	The term essential amino acid refers to those amino acids that
	a.	the body cannot synthesize
	b.	contribute to the pool of structural proteins
	c.	become part of the metabolic reserve
	d.	are stored unmodified
501.	The glycolytic pathway provides approximately 1200 kcal of energy for each mole of glucose.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
502.	When oxygen is metabolized with various foodstuffs (glucose, starch, fats, proteins), we discover that the greatest number of calories are released from fats.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
503.	The major stimulus for the release of cholecystokinin is low duodenal pH.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
504.	Normally, following the urge to defecate, if the external anal sphincter is kept contracted, the defecation reflexes die out in a few minutes, and they remain quiet for several hours or until additional amounts of feces enter the rectum.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
505.	Glycogenolysis can be promoted by epinephrine and glucagon, both agents causing the activation of a phosphorylase.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
506.	Vitamin D3 is modified in two steps: first, in the liver to 25-hydroxycholecaciferol and then in the kidneys to calcitrol (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol).
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
507.	Can phosphocreatine act in the same manner as ATP, as a coupling agent for transfer of energy between foods and functioning cellular systems?
	Answer {a} if yes, {b} if no.
508.	A deficit of potassium can cause rickets.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
509.	Carbohydrate and fat pools are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy, but amino acid pools must first be converted to a carbohydrate intermediate before being sent through cellular respiration pathways.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
510.	Glycolysis is a series of six chemical reactions, all of which take place in the mitochondria.
	Answer {a} if true, {b} if false.
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