bio4052/4163:  human anatomy & physiology 3
exam 2 question sampler

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	Urinary system anatomy & physiology
1.	The kidneys
	a.	help regulate blood volume
	b.	help control blood pressure
	c.	help control pH
	d.	all of the above are correct
2.	The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin
	a.	when the peritubular capillaries are dilated
	b.	when the pH of the urine decreases
	c.	by a decrease in blood pressure
	d.	when the specific gravity of the urine rises above 1.100
3.	The location of the kidneys in relationship to the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity is referred to as
	a.	retroperitoneal
	b.	retroabdominal
	c.	posterior
	d.	dorsal
4.	The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it
	a.	has a basement membrane
	b.	is impermeable to most substances
	c.	is drained by an efferent arteriole
	d.	has a blood pressure much lower than other organ systems
5.	The method by which material passes from the blood stream into Bowman’s capsule space is
	a.	secretion
	b.	filtration
	c.	diffusion
6.	The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for
	a.	the secretion of drugs
	b.	the secretion of acids and ammonia
	c.	reabsorption of organic molecules, vitamins, and water
	d.	regulating the fate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure
7.	This portion of the kidney tubule makes a hairpin turn in the renal medulla.
	a.	proximal convoluted tubule
	b.	loop of Henle
	c.	Bowman’s capsule
8.	The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is
	a.	the design and size of the podocytes
	b.	the thickness of the capillary endothelium
	c.	glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)
	d.	the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries
9.	“Wherever __________ goes, water follows!”
	a.	potassium
	b.	chloride
	c.	sodium
10.	The filtration membrane includes all but the
	a.	glomerular endothelium
	b.	podocytes
	c.	renal fascia
	d.	conjoint basement membrane
11.	Renin cleaves a piece off __________ to form the inactive angiotensin I.
	a.	aldosterone
	b.	angiotensinogen
	c.	lasix
12.	The volume of urine produced is normally determined by
	a.	the glomerular filtration rate
	b.	the amount of ADH secreted
	c.	both of these
	d.	none of these
13.	Normally, about __________ of the glomerular filtrate is returned to the vascular system, while about __________ of it is excreted in the urine.
	a.	50%/50%
	b.	60%/40%
	c.	90%/10%
	d.	99%/1%
14.	Vitamin D3 is modified in __________ step(s) in the liver and kidneys to calcitrol (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol).
	a.	one
	b.	two
	c.	three
	d.	four
15.	All the following are principle solutes of urine except
	a.	urea
	b.	creatinine
	c.	glycogen
	d.	uric acid
16.	Which of the following hormones increase reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts?
	a.	renin
	b.	ADH
	c.	aldosterone
	d.	insulin
17.	Substances are secreted into the renal tubule against their concentration gradients by the process of
	a.	diffusion
	b.	active transport
	c.	exocytosis
18.	Which of these pressures contributes positively to the net filtration pressure?
	a.	Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure
	b.	blood colloid osmotic pressure
	c.	blood hydrostatic pressure
	d.	none of them
19.	HCl would be called a __________ acid.
	a.	weak
	b.	neutral
	c.	strong
20.	A normal GFR is approximately __________ ml/min.
	a.	5000
	b.	125
	c.	12.5
21.	The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is
	a.	active transport
	b.	osmosis
	c.	solvent drag
	d.	cotransport with sodium ions
22.	pH is defined as the negative of the log to the base __________ of the hydrogen ion concentration.
	a.	2
	b.	e
	c.	10
23.	The macula densa cells respond to
	a.	aldosterone
	b.	antidiuretic hormone
	c.	changes in pressure in the tubule
	d.	changes in osmolarity of the filtrate
24.	__________, if not produced, would result in diabetes insipidus.
	a.	Aldosterone
	b.	Corticosterone
	c.	Antidiuretic hormone
25.	Which of the following is not absorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?
	a.	Na+
	b.	K+
	c.	glucose
	d.	creatinine
26.	All of the following are said to be a component of the urinary system except the
	a.	urethra
	b.	ureter
	c.	bladder
	d.	prostate
27.	The fluid in Bowman’s capsule space is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a significant amount of
	a.	glucose
	b.	hormones
	c.	electrolytes
	d.	plasma proteins
28.	The functional unit of the kidney is called a
	a.	glomerulus
	b.	nephron
	c.	corpuscle
	d.	calyx
29.	Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it
	a.	is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells
	b.	increases the glomerular filtration rate
	c.	increases ADH secretion
	d.	inhibits ADH release
30.	Most glucose molecules are reabsorbed in the
	a.	proximal convoluted tubules
	b.	distal convoluted tubules
	c.	collecting ducts
	d.	loop of Henle
31.	Angiotensin II functions to
	a.	constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure
	b.	decrease the production of aldosterone
	c.	decrease arterial blood pressure
	d.	reduce water absorption
32.	The structure that connects a kidney to the urinary bladder is the
	a.	ureter
	b.	urethra
	c.	renal pelvis
	d.	collecting duct
33.	A disease caused by inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone by the pituitary gland with symptoms of polyuria is
	a.	diabetes mellitus
	b.	diabetes insipidus
	c.	diabetes acidosis
	d.	coma
34.	Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder by
	a.	excretion
	b.	defecation
	c.	micturition
	d.	filtration
35.	What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal?
	a.	Net filtration pressure would increase above normal.
	b.	Net filtration pressure would decrease.
	c.	Filtration would increase in proportion to the increase in capsular pressure.
	d.	Capsular osmotic pressure would compensate so that the filtration rate would not change.
36.	Besides promoting the formation of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex, angiotensin II is also a potent
	a.	mediator of erythropoiesis
	b.	vasoconstrictor
	c.	vasodilator
37.	Which of the following is not part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
	a.	JG cells
	b.	the macula densa
	c.	podocytes
	d.	lacis cells
38.	The blood leaving the glomerular capillary bed via the efferent arteriole has __________ the blood entering via the afferent arteriole.
	a.	a greater osmotic pressure than
	b.	the same osmotic pressure as
	c.	a lesser osmotic pressure than
39.	Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by
	a.	facilitated diffusion
	b.	passive transport
	c.	countertransport
	d.	active transport
40.	The wall of the collecting duct responds to the posterior pituitary hormone ADH by reabsorbing
	a.	sodium
	b.	potassium
	c.	water
41.	The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is
	a.	the colloid osmotic pressure of the blood
	b.	the glomerular hydrostatic pressure
	c.	the capsular hydrostatic pressure
	d.	none of the above
42.	__________ very important in the regulation of acid-base balance.
	a.	Respiratory discharge of carbon dioxide is
	b.	Buffer systems are
	c.	Both a and b are
43.	If the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120 mg/100 ml, and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230 mg/100 ml, the amino acid
	a.	will be actively secreted into the filtrate
	b.	will be completely reabsorbed by the tubule cells
	c.	will appear in the urine
	d.	{a} and {c}
44.	If the blood glucose concentration exceeds 300 mg/dL, glucose spills into the urine because, at that concentration, glucose exceeds the renal __________ for glucose reabsorption.
	a.	filtration coefficient
	b.	tubular maximum
	c.	mitochondrial oxygen consumption factor
45.	The visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule is formed by cells called
	a.	lacis cells
	b.	podocytes
	c.	endothelial cells
	The following questions are True/False.
101.	The glomerular filtration rate is approximately 350 ml/min.
102.	The functional unit of the kidney is the renal column.
103.	Glomerular filtration is an ATP-driven process.
104.	Urea is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle.
105.	The highest osmotic pressure in the kidney is found in the medulla.
106.	The movement of bicarbonate ions from the red blood cell into the plasma is compensated for by the movement of chloride ions from the plasma into the RBC.
107.	Normally, about 60% of the glomerular filtrate is returned to the vascular system, while about 40% of is excreted in the urine.
	Reproductive system anatomy & physiology
201.	The menstrual cycle can be divided into three continuous phases. Starting from the first day of the cycle, the correct order is
	a.	menstrual, proliferative, secretory
	b.	menstrual, secretory. proliferative
	c.	secretory, menstrual, proliferative
	d.	proliferative, menstrual, secretory
202.	The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is their role?
	a.	They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens.
	b.	The regulate the temperature of the testes.
	c.	They are responsible for penile erection.
	d.	They relax to allow ejaculation.
203.	Spermatozoa are to seminiferous tubules as oöcytes are to
	a.	fimbriae
	b.	corpora albicantes
	c.	ovarian follicles
	d.	corpora lutea
204.	Which of these spermatogenic cells is diploid?
	a.	primary spermatocyte
	b.	secondary spermatocyte
	c.	spermatid
	d.	none of them
205.	The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is
	a.	smoking
	b.	a diet high in fat
	c.	nondescent of the testes
	d.	sexually transmitted diseases
	e.	excessive bicycling
206.	Removal of the testis from a male embryo
	a.	keeps the placenta from producing progesterone
	b.	changes the chromosomal complement from 22+Y to 22+X
	c.	causes development of female external genitalia
	d.	has no effect
207.	Which of these bipotential genitalic structures become the labia minora?
	a.	genital tubercle
	b.	urethral folds
	c.	urethral groove
	d.	labioscrotal swellings
208.	Fertilization usually occurs in the
	a.	uterus
	b.	ovarian follicle
	c.	ampulla of the fallopian tube
	d.	abdominopelvic cavity
209.	The human egg and sperm are similar in that
	a.	about the same number are produced each month
	b.	they have the same degree of motility
	c.	they have the same number of chromosomes
	d.	they are about the same size (isogamous)
210.	In the female, a lesion in the hypothalamus that destroyed the area responsible for the secretion of GnRH would cause
	a.	inhibition of estrogen secretion.
	b.	excessive inappropriate hair growth.
	c.	increased ovulation.
	d.	cyclical release of LH secretion.
	e.	no effects at all.
211.	Chemical messengers belong to four main molecular classes. Progesterone is a(n)
	a.	amino acid derivative
	b.	small peptide
	c.	protein
	d.	steroid
212.	Testosterone in the adult male is produced by the
	a.	seminiferous tubules.
	b.	interstitial cells of Leydig.
	c.	bulbourethral glands.
	d.	sustentacular [Sertoli] cells.
213.	The constancy of the chromosome number from one generation to the next is maintained by
	a.	mitosis
	b.	meiosis
	c.	cytokinesis
	d.	DNA synthesis
214.	This hormone causes the uterine endometrium to proliferate following menstruation.
	a.	gonadotropin-releasing hormone [GnRH].
	b.	follicle-stimulating hormone [FSH].
	c.	luteinizing hormone [LH].
	d.	estrogen.
	e.	progesterone.
215.	This hormone is concerned almost entirely with the final preparation of the uterus for pregnancy and the breasts for lactation.
	a.	gonadotropin-releasing hormone [GnRH].
	b.	follicle-stimulating hormone [FSH].
	c.	luteinizing hormone [LH].
	d.	estrogen.
	e.	progesterone.
216.	This hormone causes decreased insulin sensitivity and decreased glucose utilization by the mother.
	a.	chorionic gonadotropin.
	b.	estrogen.
	c.	progesterone.
	d.	chorionic somatomammotropin.
217.	In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell stage following fertilization may lead to the production of __________ twins.
	a.	dizygotic
	b.	identical
	c.	fraternal
	d.	different-sexed
218.	The oöcyte within the secondary follicle is surrounded by a multilayered “sheath” of cells called the
	a.	mesovarium
	b.	zona pellucida
	c.	cumulus oöphorus
219.	Early in embryonic development, the morula forms a hollow-ball stage; shortly thereafter, some cells migrate to the interior of this ball and become the
	a.	trophoblast.
	b.	embryoblast.
	c.	fetus.
	d.	blastocyst.
220.	Implantation normally occurs approximately how many days following fertilization?
	a.	one day.
	b.	three days.
	c.	seven days.
	d.	14 days.
221.	Functions of testosterone include
	a.	facilitation of muscle and skeletal growth in mass
	b.	loss of facial hair
	c.	mammary gland development
	d.	drying of the skin
222.	Which of the following does not add a secretion that makes a major contribution to semen?
	a.	prostate
	b.	bulbourethral glands
	c.	testes
	d.	ductus deferens
223.	The male homologue of the female clitoris is the
	a.	penis
	b.	scrotum
	c.	penile urethra
224.	The corpus luteum is formed at the site of
	a.	fertilization
	b.	ovulation
	c.	menstruation
	d.	implantation
225.	Adipose tissue is found in
	a.	the mons pubis
	b.	the labia majora
	c.	the labia minora
	d.	{a} and {b}
	e.	{a}, {b}, and {c}
226.	Erection of the penis results from
	a.	a sympathetic reflex
	b.	parasympathetic activation of the bulbourethral glands
	c.	dilatation of the veins in the penis
	d.	a spinal reflex mediated by the parasympathetic nervous system
227.	Which of these describes the primordial follicle?
	a.	The oöcyte lies to one side of a large, fluid-filled cavity, the antrum.
	b.	As the result of continued FSH secretion, the granulosa cells divide to produce a multilayered surround to the enlarging oöcyte.
	c.	The inner layer of stromal cells increases in size as the cells develop prominent smooth endoplasmic reticulum, and begin to secrete estrogens.
	d.	An oöcyte that has survived degeneration surrounded by a single layer of flattened granulosa cells.
228.	The cells responsible for synthesizing testosterone in the testis are the
	a.	Leydig cells
	b.	Sertoli cells
	c.	spermatogonia
	d.	spermatids
229.	Normally menstruation occurs when
	a.	blood levels of FSH fall
	b.	blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease
	c.	blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase
	d.	the corpus luteum secretes estrogens
230.	The structures that draw an ovulated oöcyte into the female duct system are the
	a.	cilia
	b.	fimbriae
	c.	microvilli
	d.	stereocilia
231.	The sex of a child is determined by the
	a.	sex chromosome contained in the sperm
	b.	sex chromosomes contained in the oöcyte
	c.	number of sperm fertilizing the oöcyte
	d.	position of the fetus in the uterus
232.	Occasionally, three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from the unequal division of the ovum; but what about the other two?
	a.	The were originally four polar bodies and one disappeared.
	b.	One is an undeveloped primary oöcyte that failed to mature.
	c.	The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.
233.	The number of primordial germ cells in the two ovaries goes from __________ at the fifth month of gestation to __________ at birth.
	a.	100,000/7,000,000
	b.	2,500,000/3,000,000
	c.	7,000,000/3,000,000
	The following questions are True/False.
301.	Menstruation is caused by the necrosis of the endometrium as the result of lack of support from hormones produced by the developing ovarian follicle.
302.	Phenotypic sex is determined only by the genetic makeup of the individual.
303.	The female sexual cycle is designed to result in the ovulation of a single egg each month so that optimally only a single fetus will begin to grow at a time.
304.	Together, TA1 and the TLX antigens may function in normal pregnancy by inducing maternal production of antibodies that block the immune response to TA1. Thus, absence of TLX antigen recognition due to sharing of maternal-paternal TLX antigen profiles may not allow anti-TA1 activity and may lead to subsequent fetal rejection.
305.	The number of primordial germ cells in the two ovaries increases from 100,000 at the 5th month of gestation to 7,000,000 at birth.
306.	In the absence of testosterone and DHT, the Wolffian ducts develop into the fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper third of the vagina.
307.	Excessive amounts of DHEA [dehydroepiandrosterone] in the female can result in a masculinization referred to as adrenogenital syndrome.
308.	Studies have shown that the syncytiotrophoblast [the outer layer of the trophoblast] does not express class I human leukocyte antigens [HLA antigens].
	Fetal & neonatal physiology
401.	Following birth, the PVR (pulmonary vascular resistance)
	a.	increases
	b.	decreases
	c.	is unchanged
402.	What is the respiratory rate of the neonate?
	a.	10 breaths/min
	b.	16 breaths/min
	c.	40 breaths/min
403.	The cardiac output of the neonate is ….. that of the adult?
	a.	the same as
	b.	half
	c.	twice
404.	The suckling activities of the infant stimulate the hypothalamus to release
	a.	estrogen
	b.	oxytocin
	c.	progesterone
	d.	androgens
405.	Concerning the ejection of milk [milk let-down]:
	a.	milk flows easily from the alveoli into the ductile system.
	b.	sensory impulses from the baby's suckling the breast pass through visceral nerves to the hypothalamus.
	c.	oxytocin released from the neonatal neurohypophysis causes the extra-alveolar myoepithelial cells to contract.
	d.	all of these.
406.	The suckling activities of the infant stimulate the hypothalamus to release
	a.	estrogen
	b.	oxytocin
	c.	progesterone
	d.	androgens
407.	In which stage of labor is the neonate expulsed?
	a.	1
	b.	2
	c.	3
	d.	4
	The following questions are True/False.
501.	The amount of amniotic fluid is normally between 500 and 1000 ml.
502.	Preeclampsia is characterized by a sudden decrease in the systolic and diastolic blood pressure values.
503.	The dominating hypothalamic controlling hormone for lactation is PRF.
504.	Following birth, the PVR increases.
505.	Since pancreatic amylase is produced at nearly adult levels by the neonate, a bowl of pasta is nutritionally appropriate to feed to her.
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